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And is not this the sole reason why it is single in form and indivisible? I can see no other.

There is no other to be seen.

Then the syllable falls into the same class with the letter, if it has no parts and is a single form?

Yes, unquestionably.

If, then, the syllable is a plurality of letters and is a whole of which the letters are parts, the syllables and the letters are equally knowable and expressible, if all the parts were found to be the same as the whole.

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