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[33]
in itself Our accents also are less agreeable than
those of the Greeks. This is due to a certain rigidity
and monotony of pronunciation, since the final
[p. 469]
syllable is never marked by the rise of the acute
accent nor by the rise and fill of the circumflex, but
one or even two grave accents1 are regularly to be
found at the end. Consequently the Greek language
is so much more agreeable in sound than the Latin,
that our poets, whenever they wish their verse to
be especially harmonious, adorn it with Greek words.
1 I.e. the last syllable and often the last two syllables have the grave accent. See I. v. sqq.
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