ὅτε … ἀνώγει. The common reading is “ὅτε”, which Aristophanes is said to have separated into “ὅ τε”; compare “ὃ θαρσαλέως ἀγόρευεν”, ‘in that he spake boldly,’ Od.1. 382, where “ὅ” is used without the generalising “τε”. Nearly parallel to the present passage is Od.13. 128“οὐκέτ᾽ ἐγώ γε . . τιμήεις ἔσομαι ὅτε με βροτοὶ οὔ τι τίουσι”, where “οὐκέτι” seems to suggest “ὅτε”, and to stand as a sort of antecedent to it. There seems no reason why “ὅτε” should be separated here. The use of the Lat. cum shows how a temporal conjunction can gain a causal sense even when used with a present indicative, as in Plaut. Capt.1. 2. 42‘laudo, malum cum amici tuum ducis malum.’ Cp. Il.16. 34“γλαυκὴ δέ σε τίκτε θάλασσα”“πέτραι τ᾽ ἠλίβατοι, ὅτι τοι νόος ἐστὶν ἀπηνής” with Il.16. 433“ὤ μοι ἐγὼν, ὅτε μοι Σαρπηδόνα . . μοῖρα δαμῆναι”. See, generally, Monro, H. G. § 269 foll.
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