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ὡς δή. The force of ὡς in this common ironical expression (quasi vero, cf. Gorg. 468 E, 499 B) is referred by Jebb (Soph. O. C. 809) to an ellipse: ‘(do you mean) forsooth that.’ An objection to this theory is that it will not explain ὡς δή τοι in cases like II 366 C, Phaedr. 242 C, Tim. 26 B. It seems better to explain these usages on the same principle. The view that ὡς is exclamatory will not account for II 366 C, and is not specially appropriate in the other places. Neither is it easy to make ὡς=ἐπεί (‘your illustration is excellent, seeing that the cases are so very similar!’ Tucker). Schneider (on II 366 C) regards ὡς as nearly equivalent to ὥστε (cf. note on II 365 D). Probably ὡς is in reality consequential (like the English ‘so’), the relative retaining its original demonstrative sense. This explanation will, I believe, suit all the passages in question.
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