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[89a] if they are to be good; and so by this account the profitable will be wisdom, and virtue, we say, is profitable?


Hence we conclude that virtue is either wholly or partly wisdom?

It seems to me that your statement, Socrates, is excellent.

Then if this is so, good men cannot be good by nature.

I think not.

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  • Cross-references to this page (2):
    • Raphael Kühner, Bernhard Gerth, Ausführliche Grammatik der griechischen Sprache, KG 3.pos=7.2
    • Basil L. Gildersleeve, Syntax of Classical Greek, Forms of the subject.
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