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<TEI.2><text><body><div1 n="13" type="Book" org="uniform" sample="complete"><p><milestone n="1084b" unit="section" /><milestone n="1" ed="Bekker" unit="line" />e.g. the first or
					indivisible line, then the 2, and so on; these too extending up to
					10.<note resp="Tredennick" anchored="yes" place="unspecified">The "indivisible line"
						or point was connected with 1, the line with 2, the plane with 3
						and the solid with 4 (<bibl n="Aristot. Met. 14.1090b" default="NO" valid="yes">Aristot. Met. 14.3.9</bibl>);
						and 1+2+3+4=10.</note><milestone ed="P" unit="para" />Again, if
					number is separable, the question might be raised whether Unity is
					prior, or 3 or 2.<milestone n="8.23" ed="P" unit="Loeb chap" />Now if
					we regard number as composite, Unity is prior; but if we regard the
					universal or form as prior, number is prior, because each unit is a
					material part of number, while number is the form of the units. And
					there is a sense in which the right angle is prior to the acute
					angle—since it is definite and is involved in the definition
					of the acute angle—and another sense in which the acute
					angle is prior, because it is a part of the other, i.e., the right
					angle is divided into acute angles.<milestone n="8.24" ed="P" unit="Loeb chap" />Thus regarded as matter the acute angle and
					element and unit are prior; but with respect to form and substance in
					the sense of formula, the right angle, and the whole composed of
					matter and form, is prior. For the concrete whole is nearer to the
					form or subject of the definition, although in generation it is
					posterior.<note resp="Tredennick" anchored="yes" place="unspecified">Cf. <bibl n="Aristot. Met. 7.1034b" default="NO" valid="yes">Aristot. Met. 7.10, 11</bibl>.</note><milestone ed="P" unit="para" />In what sense, then, is the One a first principle?
					Because, they say, it is indivisible.<milestone n="8.25" ed="P" unit="Loeb chap" />But the universal and the part or element are
					also indivisible. Yes, but they are prior in a different sense; the
					one in formula and the other in time. In which sense, then, is the One
					a first principle? for, as we have just said, both the right angle
					seems to be prior to the acute angle, and the latter prior to the
					former; and each of them is one.<milestone n="8.26" ed="P" unit="Loeb chap" />Accordingly the Platonists make the One a
					first principle in both senses. But this is impossible; for in one
					sense it is the One <hi rend="Italic">qua</hi> form or
					essence,<milestone n="20" ed="Bekker" unit="line" />and in the
					other the One <hi rend="Italic">qua</hi> part or matter, that is
					primary. There is a sense in which both number and unit are one; they
					are so in truth potentially—that is, if a number is not an
					aggregate but a unity consisting of units distinct from those of other
					numbers, as the Platonists hold—<milestone n="8.27" ed="P" unit="Loeb chap" /> but each of the two<note resp="Tredennick" anchored="yes" place="unspecified">Aristotle takes the number two as an example, but
						the principle is of course universal. In a sense both number and
						unit are one; but if the number exists as an actual unity, the
						unit can only exist potentially.</note> units is not one in
					complete reality. The cause of the error which befell the Platonists
					was that they were pursuing their inquiry from two points of
					view—that of mathematics and that of general
					definition—at the same time. Hence as a result of the former
					they conceived of the One or first principle as a point, for the unit
					is a point without position. (Thus they too, just like certain
					others,<milestone n="8.28" ed="P" unit="Loeb chap" />represented
					existing things as composed of that which is smallest.)<note resp="Tredennick" anchored="yes" place="unspecified">Perhaps the Atomists; but cf.
						<bibl n="Aristot. Met. 1.988b" default="NO" valid="yes">Aristot. Met. 1.8.3, 4</bibl>.</note> We get,
					then, that the unit is the material element of numbers, and at the
					same time is prior to the number 2; and again we get that it is
					posterior to 2 regarded as a whole or unity or form. On the other
					hand, through looking for the universal, they were led to speak of the
					unity predicated of a given number as a part in the formal sense also.
					But these two characteristics cannot belong simultaneously to the same
					thing.<milestone ed="P" unit="para" /><milestone n="8.29" ed="P" unit="Loeb chap" /> And if Unity itself must only be without
					position<note resp="Tredennick" anchored="yes" place="unspecified">If the text is
						sound (and no convincing emendation has been suggested), it
						seems best to understand <foreign lang="greek">ἄθετον</foreign> in a rather wider sense than the
						semi-technical one put forward by
						Ross. "Without position"=not localized, i.e.
						abstract. Unity as a principle has no concrete
						instance.</note>(for it differs only in that it is a principle) and 2
					is divisible whereas the unit is not, the unit will be more nearly
					akin to Unity itself; and if this is so, Unity itself will also be
					more nearly akin to the unit than to 2. Hence each of the units in 2
					will be prior to 2. But this they deny; at least they make out that 2
					is generated first.<note resp="Tredennick" anchored="yes" place="unspecified">Cf. <bibl n="Aristot. Met. 13.1081a" default="NO" valid="yes">Aristot. Met. 13.7.5</bibl>.</note>
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