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<TEI.2><text><body><div1 n="3" type="Book" org="uniform" sample="complete"><p><milestone n="996b" unit="section" /><milestone n="1" ed="Bekker" unit="line" /><milestone ed="P" unit="para" /><milestone n="2.5" ed="P" unit="Loeb chap" />On the other hand if there are several
					sciences of the causes, and a different one for each different
					principle, which of them shall we consider to be the one which we are
					seeking, or whom of the masters of these sciences shall we consider to
					be most learned in the subject which we are investigating?<milestone n="2.6" ed="P" unit="Loeb chap" />For it is possible for all the
					kinds of cause to apply to the same object; e.g. in the case of a
					house the source of motion is the art and the architect; the final
					cause is the function; the matter is earth and stones, and the form is
					the definition. Now to judge from our discussion some time ago<note resp="Tredennick" anchored="yes" place="unspecified">Cf. <bibl n="Aristot. Met. 1.982a" default="NO" valid="yes">Aristot. Met.
						1.2.5-6</bibl>.</note> as to which of the sciences should
					be called Wisdom, there is some case for applying the name to each of
					them.<milestone n="2.7" ed="P" unit="Loeb chap" />Inasmuch as
					Wisdom is the most sovereign and authoritative kind of knowledge,
					which the other sciences, like slaves, may not contradict, the
					knowledge of the <emph>end</emph> and of the <emph>Good</emph>
					resembles Wisdom (since everything else is for the sake of the
					<emph>end</emph> ); but inasmuch as it has been defined as
					knowledge of the first principles and of the most knowable, the
					knowledge of the essence will resemble Wisdom.<milestone n="2.8" ed="P" unit="Loeb chap" />For while there are many ways of
					understanding the same thing, we say that the man who recognizes a
					thing by its being something knows more than he who recognizes it by
					its not being something; and even in the former case one knows more
					than another, and most of all he who knows <emph>what</emph> it is,
					and not he who knows its size or quality or natural capacity for
					acting or being acted upon.<milestone n="2.9" ed="P" unit="Loeb chap" />Further, in all other cases too, even in such as admit of
					demonstration,<milestone n="20" ed="Bekker" unit="line" />we
					consider that we know a particular thing when we know
					<emph>what</emph> it is (e.g. what is the squaring of a rectangle?
					answer, the finding of a mean proportional to its sides; and similarly
					in other instances); but in the case of generations and actions and
					all kinds of change, when we know the source of motion.<milestone n="2.10" ed="P" unit="Loeb chap" />This is distinct from and
					opposite to the <emph>end</emph> . Hence it might be supposed that the
					study of each of these causes pertained to a different science.<note resp="Tredennick" anchored="yes" place="unspecified">See <bibl n="Aristot. Met. 4.1003a" default="NO" valid="yes">Aristot. Met. 4.1</bibl></note><milestone ed="P" unit="para" />(2.) Again, with respect to the demonstrative
					principles as well, it may be disputed whether they too are the
					objects of one science<note resp="Tredennick" anchored="yes" place="unspecified">sc. the
						science which studies the four causes.</note> or of
					several.<note resp="Tredennick" anchored="yes" place="unspecified">Cf. <bibl n="Aristot. Met. 3.995b" default="NO" valid="yes">Aristot. Met. 3.1.5</bibl>.</note><milestone n="2.11" ed="P" unit="Loeb chap" />By demonstrative I mean the axioms from
					which all demonstration proceeds, e.g. "everything must be either
					affirmed or denied," and "it is impossible at once to be and not to
					be," and all other such premisses. Is there one science both of these
					principles and of substance, or two distinct sciences? and if there is
					not one, which of the two should we consider to be the one which we
					are now seeking?<milestone ed="P" unit="para" /><milestone n="2.12" ed="P" unit="Loeb chap" />It is not probable that both subjects
					belong to one science; for why should the claim to understand these
					principles be peculiar to geometry rather than to any other science?
					Then if it pertains equally to any science, and yet cannot pertain to
					all, </p></div1></body></text></TEI.2>