Sir Richard C. Jebb, Commentary on Sophocles: Philoctetes

οἴκαδε, to Malis (4 n.),—where the tidings would have had a special interest: μηδ᾽ Ἑλλάδος γῆς μηδαμοῦ, nor in any part of Hellas (for the gen., cp. 204 “τῆδε τόπων” n.). As Neoptolemus is coming from Troy, the words have more force if we suppose the poet to use “Ἑλλάς” in the larger sense which was so familiar in his own day,— as including all lands inhabited by Greeks. Thus the “Ἑλλάς” of Her. comprises Ionia (I. 92) and Sicily (7. 157); and Soph. himself ( Soph. Tr. 1060) has “οὔθ᾽ Ἑλλὰς οὔτ᾽ ἄγλωσσος”. The thought will then be, ‘he had not heard of me from the mainland of Greece before he left Scyros; nor has he heard of me, since he has been at Troy, from any part of the Greek world.’ It is no objection, of course, that the Homeric poems do not recognise the Greek colonies in Asia Minor; the Attic drama was not careful in such matters. Even, however, if we restricted “Ἑλλάδος γῆς” to Greece Proper, it would still be natural that Ph. should say, ‘neither to Malis, nor to any part of Greece.’ Nauck, thus limiting “Ἑλλάς”, pronounces the distinction unmeaning; he further objects to ὧδ᾽ ἔχοντος (because Ph. means that, not merely his plight, but his existence, is unknown); and therefore rejects “ὦδ᾽ ἔχοντος οἴκαδε” | “μηδ᾽ Ἑλλάδος γῆς.”

μηδαμοῦ need not be changed to “μηδαμοῖ”: cp. O. C. 1019“ὁδοῦ ...τῆς ἐκεῖ” (=“ἐκεῖσε”): El. 1099“ὁδοιποροῦμεν ἔνθα” (=“οἷ”) “χρῄζομεν.”

πω should prob. be read instead of που. The long lapse of time imagined renders “πω” forcible; while “που” could mean only, ‘I ween’; it could not go with “μηδαμοῦ” as=‘to no place whatsoever.’ In O. C. 1370, where πω is certain, L has που from the first hand. In fr. 467, again, “λόγῳ γὰρ ἕλκος οὐδὲν οἶδά που τυχεῖν”, the correction “πω” (Dindorf) is clearly right.