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τοῦ χάριν, τίνων: “τοῦ” (neut.) “χάριν”, ‘wherefore?’ (as in Ph. 1029, “τί μ᾽ ἀπάγεσθε; τοῦ χάριν”; ): “τίνων” (masc.) “χάριν”; ‘for the sake of what men?’ ‘Wherefore—to please whom—did he immolate her?’ This is the only construction of the words which fits “Ἀργείων” in 535. The twofold question also suits the vehemence of the speaker, who is seeking to drive the point home.

The alternative, which most editors have preferred, is to take “τίνων” as the participle. But there is an insuperable objection to this, which seems to have escaped notice. The words, “τοῦ χάριν τίνων”; could mean only, ‘paying a debt of gratitude for what?’ They could not mean, ‘paying a debt of gratitude to whom?’ The latter would be “τῷ χάριν τίνων”; See (e.g.) Aesch. P. V. 985καὶ μὴν ὀφείλων ἂν τίνοιμ᾽ αὐτῷ χάριν”: Aesch. Ag. 821τούτων θεοῖσι χρὴ πολύμνηστον χάριν” | “τίνειν”. Hence the question, “τοῦ χάριν τίνων”; could not possibly be answered by “Ἀργείων”. For, evidently, the latter word could not mean, (‘for a benefit conferred by) the Greeks.’ A scholiast in the Baroccian MS. (cr. n. on 545), who explains “τοῦ χάριν τίνων” by “τίνος χάριν ἀποδιδούς”, plainly meant, ‘showing gratitude for what?’—and his paraphrase was correct; only he overlooked the context.

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hide References (3 total)
  • Commentary references from this page (3):
    • Aeschylus, Agamemnon, 821
    • Aeschylus, Prometheus Bound, 985
    • Sophocles, Philoctetes, 1029
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