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[412] The Homeric idea of “ἄτη” is best explained by Agamemnon himself in 19.85-136. Dawes would restore the form “”(“ϝ”)“άτη” to Homer throughout (cf. “πινδ. αὐάτη”), but this is impossible in 19.88, 24.28; and the contracted forms of the verb “ἄσατο19.95, “ἆσεOd. 11.61 (late passages all) are opposed to it. τ᾽ = “ὅτι τε”, see note on 244 and H. G. § 269 (3).

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