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[285] There are three readings of this line: (1) that of the text after Zen.; (2) “φρέν᾽ ἄτερ που”, A and Ar.; (3) the vulgate “φρέν᾽ ἀτέρπου”. Of these (3) construes, but the form “ἄτερπος” is barbarous. Heyne has remarked that it is not found in the Lexica of Apoll. and Hesych. The Homeric form is “ἀτερπής”. (2) was explained by Aristarchos as follows: — “δόξαιμι ἂν ἐκλελῆσθαι τῆς κακοπαθείας καὶ χωρὶς αὐτῆς γεγονέναι: ἔνιοι δὲ ἀγνοήσαντες γράφουσιν ἀτέρπου”, i.e. ‘I should deem that (being apart (“που”?) from lamentation I had forgotten it in my heart.’ But for the authority of Ar. such an elucidation would probably not have been listened to for a moment. It can hardly be called Greek, much less Homeric. The only resource is to adopt the reading (1); it must be admitted that it has all the appearance of a conjecture, and can only be approved in comparison with absolute nonsense. There is no explanation of how the nonsense came to be the vulgate. Various emendations have been proposed: “φρένα πέρ που” or “δήπου” Bentley, “φρέν᾽ ἄφαρ που” Nauck, “ἀφέρτου” Naber, “ἀτερπἔ” Platt (which does not suit the use of “ἀτερπής” elsewhere, = distressing). On the whole we can only say that the problem is unsolved. The whole end of the speech, from 281, has something strange about it in sentiment as well as expression, and doubts must go further than the word “ἀτέρπου”.

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